PSE-PLATFORM Online Practice Questions and Answers

What are the three benefits of the Palo Alto Networks migration tool? (Choose three.)

A. Conversion of existing firewall policies to Palo Alto Networks NGFW policies

B. Analysis of existing firewall environment

C. Assistance with the transition from POC to Production

D. Elimination of the need for consulting/professional services

E. The migration tool provides App-ID enhancements to improve Technical Support calls

Palo Alto Networks publishes updated Command and Control signatures. How frequently should the related signatures schedule be set?

A. Once an hour

B. Once every minute

C. Once a week

D. Once a day

Which license is required to receive weekly dynamic updates to the correlation objects on the firewall and Panorama?

A. WildFire on the firewall, and AutoFocus on Panorama

B. URL Filtering on the firewall, and MindMeld on Panorama

C. Threat Prevention on the firewall, and Support on Panorama

D. GlobalProtect on the firewall, and Threat Prevention on Panorama

How do Highly Suspicious artifacts in-AutoFocus help identify when an unknown, potential zero-day, targeted attack occur to allow one to adjust the security posture?

A. Highly Suspicious artifacts are associated with High-Risk payloads that are inflicting massive amounts of damage to end customers.

B. All High Risk artifacts are automatically classified as Highly Suspicious.

C. Highly Suspicious artifacts are High Risk artifacts that have been seen in very few samples.

D. Highly Suspicious artifacts have been seen infecting a broad, significant range of companies.

What is the HA limitation specific to the PA-200 appliance?

A. Can be deployed in either an active/passive or active/active HA pair

B. Can only synchronize configurations and does not support session synchronization

C. Has a dedicated HA1 and HA2 ports, but no HA3

D. Is the only Palo Alto Networks firewall that does not have any HA capabilities

What are three considerations when deploying User-ID. (Choose three.)

A. Enable WMI probing in high security networks

B. User-ID can support a maximum hops.

C. Specify included and excluded networks when configuring User-ID

D. Use a dedicated service account for User-ID services with the minimal permissions necessary.

E. Only enable User-ID on trusted zones

Which four steps of the cyberattack lifecycle dose the Palo Alto Networks platform present? (Choose four)

A. Breach the perimeter

B. Exfiltrate data

C. Weaponries vulnerabilities

D. Deliver the malware

E. Recon the target

F. Lateral movement

Which configuration creates the most comprehensive "best-practice" Anti Spyware profile to prevent command and Control traffic?

A. Clone the Strict Anti-Spyware Profile, enable DNS Sinkholing and Passive DNS Monitoring, and deploy this customized clone

B. Clone the Default Anti-Spyware Profile and enable DNS Sinkholing and Passive DNS Monitoring, and deploy this customized clone

C. Edit and deploy the Default Anti-Spyware Profile (DNS Sinkholing and Passive DNS Monitoring is already enabled)

D. Edit and deploy the Strict Anti-Spyware Profile Profile (DNS Sinkholing and Passive DNS Monitoring is already enabled)

Given the following network diagram, an administrator is considering the use of Windows Log Forwarding and Global Catalog servers for User-ID implementation.

What are two potential bandwidth and processing bottlenecks to consider? (Choose two.)

A. Member Servers

B. Firewall

C. Domain Controllers

D. Windows Server

What is the recommended way to ensure that firewalls have the most current set of signatures for up-todate protection?

A. Store updates on an intermediary server and point all the firewalls to it

B. Monitor update announcements and manually push updates to firewalls

C. Utilize dynamic updates with an aggressive update schedule

D. Run a Perl script to regularly check for updates and alert when one in released

Which four actions can be configured in an Anti-Spyware profile to address command-and-control traffic from compromised hosts? (Choose four.)

A. Allow

B. Drop

C. Quarantine

D. Redirect

E. Alert

F. Reset

What are two benefits of using Panorama for a customer who is deploying virtual firewalls to secure data center traffic? (Choose two.)

A. It can monitor the virtual firewalls' physical hosts and Vmotion them as necessary.

B. It can bootstrap the virtual firewall for dynamic deployment scenarios

C. It can manage the virtual firewalls' resource use, allowing for VM resource over-subscription.

D. It can provide the Automated Correlation Engine functionality, which the virtual firewalls do not support

Which design objective could be satisfied by vsys functionality?

A. Separation of routing tables used by different departments in company

B. Provide same-device high availability functionality for different departments in a company

C. Administrative separation of firewall policies used by different departments in company

D. Allocate firewall hardware resources to different departments in a company

What are three sources of malware sample data for the Palo Alto Networks Threat Intelligence Cloud? (Choose three.)

A. Third-Party data feeds, like the partnership with ProofPoint and the Cyber Threat Alliance

B. Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus generated Correlation Objects

C. Palo Alto Networks Next Generation Firewalls deployed with Wildfire Analysis Security Profiles

D. WF-500 configured as private clouds for privacy concerns

E. Palo Alto Networks non-firewall products, like Traps and Aperture

Which profile or policy should be applied to protect against port scans from the internet?

A. An App-ID security policy rule to block traffic sourcing from the untrust zone

B. Security profiles to security policy rules for traffic sourcing from the untrust zone

C. Interface management profile on the zone of the ingress interface

D. Zone protection profile on the zone of the ingress interface