CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Correct Answer: A

This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

Correct Answer: C

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a "th a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threatintelligence/ cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

Correct Answer: C

Reverse engineering is a technique that involves analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. Reverse engineering can help security analysts perform malware analysis, vulnerability research, exploit development, and software debugging. Reverse engineering can be done using various tools, such as disassemblers, debuggers, decompilers, and hex editors.

Correct Answer: A

The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.

Correct Answer: B

Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.

Correct Answer: C

The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is: function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk" " " } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies

Correct Answer: A

The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image" specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.

Correct Answer: B

The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is:

function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $" }

This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address, such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude.

The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information, which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country.

Correct Answer: A

EDR stands for endpoint detection and response, which is a type of security solution that monitors and protects all devices that are connected to a network, such as laptops and mobile phones. EDR can help to ensure that all devices are

patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software by providing continuous visibility, threat detection, incident response, and remediation capabilities. EDR can also help to enforce security policies and compliance

requirements across all devices .

https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-endpoint-detection-and-response-edr/

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer: A

A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid credentials to log in to the scanned systems and perform a more thorough and accurate assessment of their vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can access more information than a non-credentialed scan, such as registry keys, patch levels, configuration settings, and installed applications. A credentialed scan can also reduce the number of false positives and false negatives, as it can verify the actual state of the system rather than relying on inference or assumptions. The other types of scans are not related to the issue of incomplete findings, as they refer to different aspects of vulnerability scanning, such as the scope, location, or frequency of the scan. An external scan is a scan that is performed from outside the network perimeter, usually from the internet. An external scan can reveal how an attacker would see the network and what vulnerabilities are exposed to the public. An external scan cannot access internal systems or resources that are behind firewalls or other security controls. A differential scan is a scan that compares the results of two scans and highlights the differences between them. A differential scan can help identify changes in the network environment, such as new vulnerabilities, patched vulnerabilities, or new devices. A differential scan does not provide a complete list of findings by itself, but rather a summary of changes. A network scan is a scan that focuses on the network layer of the OSI model and detects vulnerabilities related to network devices, protocols, services, and configurations. A network scan can discover open ports, misconfigured firewalls, unencrypted traffic, and other network-related issues. A network scan does not provide information about the application layer or the host layer of the OSI model, such as web applications or operating systems.

Reference: https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/vulnerability-scanning.html

Correct Answer: D

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer: C

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud-based services and applications. A CASB can provide data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities for sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud, such as encryption, masking, tokenization, or redaction. A CASB can also enforce policies and compliance requirements for cloud usage, such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and reporting. The other options are not appropriate solutions for controlling sensitive data in the cloud. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloudapp-security/what-is-cloud-app-security